Diabetes Management Essentials Nursing

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 1:

Which subgroup faces notable challenges in achieving diabetes goals?

A) Patients with complex morbidities

B) Those with financial or social hardships

C) Ethnic groups facing disparities

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 2:

Which improves the quality of care for patients with diabetes?

A) Structured and collaborative evidence-based patient-centered care

B) Ignoring the patient’s lifestyle and psychosocial needs

C) Expecting patients to manage medication cost barriers on their own

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 3:

Which of the following patients should be screened for diabetes?

A) 9-year-old patient with no health conditions

B) 25-year-old healthy female with no history of gestational diabetes

C) 30-year-old patient with obesity and hypertension

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 4:

Which patient would be recommended for a Diabetes Prevention Program?

A) 60-year-old patient with A1C 5.5%

B) 40-year-old patient with obesity, A1C 5.7%, smokes cigarettes (1 pack/day)

C) 20-year-old patient with no health conditions

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 5:

Which is a component of Diabetes Prevention Programs?

A) Moderate-intensity physical activity at least 150 minutes per week

B) Individualized medical nutrition therapy

C) Cardiovascular risk mitigation

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 6:

Insulin is the preferred treatment for type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes with marked hyperglycemia (e.g., catabolism and symptoms), gestational diabetes not controlled by lifestyle intervention, cystic fibrosis, neonatal diabetes with insulin gene mutations, and hospitalized or postoperative patients with persistent hyperglycemia (> 180 mg/dL).

A) True

B) False

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 7:

Comprehensive diabetes care should include:

A) Diet, exercise, smoking cessation, family planning, age-appropriate screenings

B) Management of medications & conditions (hypertension, dyslipidemia, obesity, renal and cardiovascular disease)

C) Foot/dental/eye care, immunizations, sick day management

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 8:

An individualized program by a registered dietitian nutritionist is recommended for patients with prediabetes and diabetes.

A) True

B) False

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 9:

Which of the following has the lowest risk of hypoglycemia?

A) Short-acting human insulin

B) Long-acting analog insulin

C) Intermediate-acting NPH insulin

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 10:

Which is the first-line pharmacotherapy for type 2 diabetes without marked hyperglycemia?

A) Metformin and/or a CV-benefiting SGLT2i or GLP-1 RA

B) Metformin and/or a thiazolidinedione

C) Metformin and/or a sulfonylurea

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 11:

Which has evidence of benefit for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease?

A) Canagliflozin

B) Empagliflozin

C) Liraglutide

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 12:

Which has not demonstrated benefits for heart failure hospitalizations.

A) Canagliflozin

B) Empagliflozin

C) Dulaglutide

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 13:

Which has not demonstrated benefits for diabetic kidney disease.

A) Empagliflozin

B) Ertugliflozin

C) Dapagliflozin

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 14:

Besides cardiovascular and renal benefits, GLP-1 RA and SGLT2i agents can influence weight loss.

A) True

B) False

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 15:

Which is the correct recommendation for renal impairment?

A) Metformin should be discontinued if eGFR is 45-60 30 mL/min/1.73 m2

B) Semaglutide should be avoided in renal impairment

C) Canagliflozin should be avoided in end-stage renal disease or eGFR < 30 mL/min/1.73 m2

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 16:

Which of the following should be avoided: Automated insulin systems or pumps?

A) Patients unable to safely manage and do not have caregiver support

B) Patients with type 1 or other insulin-deficient diabetes

C) Patients with type 2 diabetes on multiple daily insulin injections

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 17:

Lack of self-monitoring is associated with lower A1C and fewer acute diabetes complications in youth with type 1 diabetes.

A) True

B) False

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 18:

Which condition may influence A1C accuracy?

A) Anemia

B) End-stage renal disease

C) Pregnancy

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 19:

When should patients taking insulin check their blood glucose?

A) Fasting, before meals and snacks, at bedtime

B) Before exercise or critical tasks such as driving

C) When suspecting or treating hypoglycemia

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 20:

Who can be considered for continuous glucose monitoring?

A) Patients with diabetes on multiple daily insulin injections or insulin pump

B) Youth, pregnant, elderly, frailty

C) Patients with glycemic variability or a history of severe hypoglycemia

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 21:

Which of the following increases the risk for hypoglycemia?

A) Glucocorticoids

B) Sulfonylureas

C) Antipsychotics

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 22:

Which may contribute to hypoglycemia risk in a patient taking insulin?

A) Exercise, sleep

B) Food insecurity

C) Hypoglycemia unawareness

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 23:

Severe hypoglycemia does not increase the risk of cardiovascular events and mortality.

A) True

B) False

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 24:

Which is the preferred treatment for hypoglycemia?

A) Glucagon for conscious patients with level 1 hypoglycemia

B) 15-20 grams of carbohydrate for level 2 or 3 hypoglycemia

C) 15-20 grams of carbohydrate for conscious patients with level 1 hypoglycemia

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 25:

Which requires discontinuation or renal monitoring in patients taking SGLT2i?

A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

B) Diuretics

C) Renin-angiotensin aldosterone system blockers

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 26:

What is a strategy for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease in adults aged 40-75 years with diabetes?

A) Moderate-intensity statin therapy

B) Weight management (healthy eating plan, physical activity)

C) Smoking cessation

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 27:

Almost all Food and Drug Administration-approved weight-loss medications demonstrated delayed progression to type 2 diabetes and improved glycemic control in patients with type 2 diabetes.

A) True

B) False

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 28:

Which medication can cause weight gain?

A) Liraglutide

B) Metformin

C) Gabapentin

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 29:

Which is recommended for patients with diabetes, hypertension, and/or albuminuria (urine albumin to creatinine ratio > 30 mg/g, especially if > 300 mg/g)?

A) ACEi or ARB

B) Dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker

C) Beta blocker

D) All of the above.

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 30:

Which agent may improve renal and cardiovascular outcomes when added to an ACEi or ARB (with or without an SGLT2i) in patients with diabetes and chronic kidney disease?

A) Bromocriptine

B) Finerenone

C) Colesevelam

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 31:

Which can benefit retinopathy and nephropathy care?

A) Optimizing blood glucose control.

B) Providing patient education and encouraging updated foot & eye exams.

C) Supporting cardiovascular risk reduction strategies.

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 32:

What is a strategy for managing exercise glycemia?

A) Setting a goal for pre-exercise glucose of 126-180 mg/dL

B) Reducing insulin doses and/or consuming 15-gram carbohydrates before exercise

C) Ensuring access to glucose monitoring and hypoglycemia treatment

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 33:

Which is recommended if treatment escalation is needed in adolescents with type 2 diabetes taking metformin and basal insulin?

A) GLP-1 RA approved for youth (e.g., liraglutide)

B) Pioglitazone

C) Glimepiride

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 34:

Which should be avoided in pregnancy?

A) Statins

B) ACEis, ARBs, spironolactone

C) Weight-loss medications

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 35:

Which is true regarding postpartum diabetes care?

A) Insulin sensitivity decreases

B) Lactation may increase the risk of hypoglycemia

C) Insulin doses do not need to be evaluated

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 36:

What A1C goal is generally recommended for most patients?

A) < 7% for adults

B) < 7% for youth

C) < 6% for pregnancy

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 37:

Aggressive A1C goals (i.e., < 6%) should be used for patients with frailty, history of hypoglycemia, multiple illnesses, cognitive impairment, or functional independence.

A) True

B) False

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 38:

What is a strategy for safe insulin use?

A) Utilizing hypoglycemia prediction tools in healthcare settings

B) Not matching prandial insulin to carbohydrate intake

C) Absence of protocols for insulin and hypoglycemia management in hospitals

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 39:

Which is recommended for diabetes treatment in older patients?

A) Stringent blood glucose and blood pressure goals should be considered for all older adults.

B) Older adults should be screened for polypharmacy, cognitive impairment, dementia, depression, incontinence, falls, pain, vision, dexterity, and frailty.

C) Overtreatment and complex regimens reduce hypoglycemia risk, polypharmacy, cost, and non-adherence.

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 40:

When palliative care is needed, goals and intensity of care may be relaxed, and regimen simplification may be considered.

A) True

B) False

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 41:

Which is true regarding continuous parenteral nutrition for patients with diabetes?

A) Human regular insulin is preferred.

B) Insulin is added to the solution to prevent hypoglycemia risk if feeding is held, especially if > 20 units of correctional insulin were required in the past 24 hours.

C) Blood glucose levels < 140 mg/dL increase hypoglycemia risk due to continuous postprandial state.

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 42:

Which is true for patients with diabetes undergoing surgery?

A) Treatment of preadmission hyperglycemia can reduce the risk of adverse outcomes.

B) The target perioperative blood glucose is 80-180 mg/dL.

C) SGLT2i should be held 3-4 days prior to surgery.

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 43:

Treatment goals for diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state include restoring circulatory volume and tissue perfusion, resolving hyperglycemia, correcting electrolyte imbalance and acidosis, and treating underlying causes.

A) True

B) False

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 44:

What is the standard treatment for glucose management in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A) Continuous intravenous insulin for critically ill and mentally obtunded patients.

B) Sliding-scale insulin regimens for mild to moderate cases.

C) Artificial pancreas for uncomplicated diabetic ketoacidosis

D) All of the above

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Diabetes Management Essentials

Question 45:

Which is an example of a transitions of care strategy?

A) Implementing a subcutaneous insulin transition protocol for critical care patients on continuous intravenous insulin infusion

B) Medication reconciliation with structured discharge communication

C) Following up with patients 1-2 weeks after hospital discharge

D) All of the above

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