HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

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Please enter Full Legal Name (First and Last Name) & Required Information to be printed on the certificate. CPE Monitor Reporting is done electronically on the same day of completion (must provide all required information matching with your NABP e-profile).

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HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 1:

What is the typical duration of the HIV PEP regimen?

A) 3 days

B) 14 days

C) 28 days

D) 90 days

2 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 2:

All of the following are common situations where HIV PEP might be recommended EXCEPT?

A) A healthcare worker experiences a needlestick injury.

B) An individual receives an HIV-positive diagnosis during a routine screening.

C) An individual has unprotected sexual contact with someone known to be HIV-positive.

D) An individual shares a needle with someone who has an unknown HIV status.

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HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 3:

Which medication class is used in HIV PEP?

A) Antibiotics

B) Anti-inflammatory drugs

C) Antifungals

D) Antiretroviral drugs

4 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 4:

All of the following body fluids have the potential to transmit HIV EXCEPT?

A) Non-bloody saliva

B) Vaginal fluid

C) Semen

D) Blood

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HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 5:

Which of the following terms or phrases is NOT considered stigmatizing?

A) A person living with HIV (PLWH)

B) HIV-Infected person

C) HIV infection

D) HIV-eradication

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HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 6:

Which evidence-based approach is recommended for caring for a patient with suspected or confirmed HIV without complications?

A) Airborne precautions

B) Negative pressure isolation

C) Contact precautions

D) Universal precautions

7 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 7:

Which of the following is considered a breach of confidentiality in healthcare?

A) Leaving confidential information unattended in a non-secure area.

B) Discussing confidential information in the presence of individuals who do not have the "need to know” to perform assigned duties.

C) Accessing confidential patient data without a "need to know" to perform duties.

D) All of the above

8 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 8:

What do the Ps in “5Ps +3” stand for?

A) Partners, Practices, Protection from STIs, Past History of STIs, Pregnancy intention, Pleasure, Problems, and Pride

B) Pain, Protection, Partners, Pregnancy, and Pulse rate

C) Pharmacy, Phlebotomy, Parenteral nutrition, Postoperative notes, and Patient representatives

D) Partners, Past medical history, Pain, Promiscuity, Parental consent, Pregnancy, Problems, and Plans.

9 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 9:

Which of the following is considered inclusive language?

A) Asking for and using patients’ preferred names and pronouns.

B) Always use the pronoun that the patient was assigned at birth.

C) Assume relationships are husband/wife unless stated otherwise.

D) None of the above

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HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 10:

PEP must be started within how many hours of potential HIV exposure?

A) 12 hours

B) 24 hours

C) 72 hours

D) 96 hours

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HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 11:

Which conditions require precaution and/or evaluation when using Emtricitabine and Tenofovir Disoproxil Fumarate (Truvada)?

A) Hepatitis B

B) Osteoporosis

C) Lactic acidosis

D) All of the above.

12 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 12:

There is currently no evidence of human teratogenicity with Raltegravir, although it has high transfer across the human placenta.

A) True

B) False

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HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 13:

Which signs and symptoms would be the most worrisome for a recently started Raltegravir patient?

A) Increased creatine kinase (CK) in a patient with a history of rhabdomyolysis

B) Nausea

C) Mild headache

D) Abdominal cramping relieved by bowel movement

14 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 14:

Which of the following is NOT a principle of trauma-informed care?

A) Encourage and coordinate peer support opportunities.

B) Encourage the patient to participate actively and decide based on their healthcare planning.

C) Asking the victim to repeat and describe the traumatic event to care team members and various professionals, although not necessary in the treatment plan.

D) Avoid re-traumatization

15 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 15:

Which of the following factors impacts the risk of HIV transmission?

A) The plasma viral load of the source of the HIV-positive individual in question.

B) The presence of other STIs in either the source or exposed person.

C) Circumcision status

D) All of the above

16 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 16:

Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate has been associated with decreases in bone mineral density in HIV-1-infected adults and increases in bone metabolism markers.

A) True

B) False

17 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 17:

Do not use in patients with creatinine clearance (CrCl) _____________ or requiring hemodialysis.

A) <90 mL/minute

B) <70 mL/minute

C) <30 mL/minute

D) <60 mL/minute

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HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 18:

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Emtricitabine and Tenofovir Disoproxil Fumarate?

A) Weight gain

B) Abdominal pain

C) Abnormal phosphorus levels (<2.0 mg/dL: 10%),

D) Decreased neutrophils

19 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 19:

To maximize absorption of Raltegravir use in late pregnancy, doses should not be administered within ______ of taking prenatal vitamins or other supplements.

A) 1 hour

B) 2 hours

C) 3 hours

D) 4 hours

20 / 20

HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP)

Question 20:

Which antiretroviral medication should be avoided during conception and early pregnancy due to the slightly increased risk of neural tube defects compared to other antiretrovirals?

A) Tenofovir Disoproxil Fumarate (TDF) and Emtricitabine (FTC)

B) Raltegravir (RAL)

C) Dolutegravir (DTG)

D) None of the above

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